Limits, Continuity and Differentiability: Mathematics | JEE Main
Let y(x)=(1+x)(1+x2)(1+x4)(1+x8)(1+x16). Then y′−y′′ at x=−1 is equal to :
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Step-by-step solutionView
Correct answer
Using the identity y(x)=∑k=031xk=1−x1−x32, evaluating y′(−1)−y′′(−1) gives 496.
Option analysis
Why each option works or fails
A · 976
Computing y′(−1)+y′′(−1) instead of y′(−1)−y′′(−1), or doubling the second derivative value by mistake. Check signs carefully: the stem asks for y′(−1)−y′′(−1), where y′(−1)=−16 and y′′(−1)=−512, giving −16−(−512)=496, not −16−960.
B · 944
Adding an extra term or miscalculating the summation limits as k=0 to 32 instead of 31, leading to n=32 degree terms. The highest power in (1+x)(1+x2)(1+x4)(1+x8)(1+x16) is 1+2+4+8+16=31, so the polynomial has degree 31, not 32.
C · 464
Arithmetic error when summing alternating series ∑k=131(−1)k−1k or pairing terms in the second derivative sum. Carefully compute ∑k=131k(−1)k−1=−16 and ∑k=231k(k−1)(−1)k=−512, then evaluate −16−(−512)=496.
D · 496
None. The student correctly expands the product as a geometric series ∑k=031xk and differentiates term-by-term at x=−1. Correct approach.
Reviewed route
Solution
StepWorking
01given
y(x)=(1+x)(1+x2)(1+x4)(1+x8)(1+x16).
02goal
Compute the value of y′(−1)−y′′(−1).
03approach
Multiply both sides by (1−x) to collapse the repeated difference of squares into (1−x)y=1−x32, then differentiate implicitly twice and evaluate at x=−1.
04execute
Multiply by (1−x): (1−x)y=1−x32. Differentiating once with respect to x yields: (1−x)y′−y=−32x31.
05execute
Differentiate a second time: (1−x)y′′−y′−y′=−32×31x30, which simplifies to (1−x)y′′−2y′=−992x30.
06execute
Substitute x=−1: (1−(−1))y′′(−1)−2y′(−1)=−992(−1)30⟹2y′′(−1)−2y′(−1)=−992. Dividing both sides by −2 gives y′(−1)−y′′(−1)=496.
✓verify
At x=−1, the factor (1+x)=0, so y(−1)=0. Using the first derivative relation: 2y′(−1)−0=−32(−1)31=32⟹y′(−1)=16. From the second derivative relation: 2y′′(−1)−2(16)=−992⟹2y′′(−1)=−960⟹y′′(−1)=−480. Thus, y′−y′′=16−(−480)=496. Consistent.
Why multiply by (1−x) rather than directly using logarithmic differentiation?
Logarithmic differentiation is valid, but at x=−1, y=0, which makes lny undefined at the point. Telescoping polynomial multiplication avoids singularities entirely.