Skip to the question
JEE MainMathematics
Answer verified against the official NTA key
+4 marks1 if incorrectNumericalPrevious-year question

Definite Integral of Product of Geometric and Arithmetic-Geometric Polynomials

Let f_n = integral from 0 to π/2 of (sum from k=1 to n of sin^(k-1) x) (sum from k=1 to n of (2k - 1) sin^(k-1) x) cos x dx, n ∈ ℕ. Then f_21 - f_20 is equal to.
Your answer stays private

What feels right?

No score. Commit to your first instinct. We’ll show what your mind noticed and what it missed.

Type the value - units or words beside it are fine.

Choose one answer
Source and academic review
Question type
Numerical
Exam relevance
JEE Main · Mathematics
Academic status
Answer verified against the official NTA key
Source
Previous-year question
Editorial review
7 September 2026

Students also ask

Why is the upper limit for t equal to n when u = 1?

Because t is the sum of n terms, each of the form u^(k - 1/2). When u = 1, each term is 1^(k - 1/2) = 1, so t = 1 + 1 + ... + 1 (n times) = n.