Skip to the question
JEE MainMathematics
Answer verified against the official NTA key
+4 marks1 if incorrectSingle correctPrevious-year question

Differentiating an Integral Equation Using Leibniz's Rule

If φ(x) = 1/(√(x)) integral from π/4 to x of (4√(2)sin t - 3φ'(t))dt, x > 0, then φ'(π/4) is equal to:
Your answer stays private

What feels right?

No score. Commit to your first instinct. We’ll show what your mind noticed and what it missed.

Choose one answer
Source and academic review
Question type
Single correct
Exam relevance
JEE Main · Mathematics
Academic status
Answer verified against the official NTA key
Source
Previous-year question
Editorial review
8 September 2026

Students also ask

Why do we multiply by x before differentiating instead of using the quotient rule directly?

Multiplying by x simplifies the Leibniz rule application by avoiding quotient rule fractions, making the substitution at x=π/4 much cleaner.

Why is ϕ(π/4)=0?

The definite integral π/4π/4f(t)dt has identical upper and lower limits, so its value is identically 0.