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JEE MainMathematics
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Definite Integral Involving King's Property After Substitution

The value of integral from e^2 to e^4 of 1/x ((e^(((log_e x)^2+1)^(-1)))/(e^(((log_e x)^2+1)^(-1)) + e^(((6-log_e x)^2+1)^(-1)))) dx is
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JEE Main · Mathematics
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Answer verified against the official NTA key
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Previous-year question
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8 September 2026

Students also ask

Why do we let t = ln x first?

Because the derivative of ln x is 1/x, which directly cancels the 1/x factor in dx, simplifying the integrand to a standard King's property form.