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Integral Calculus: JEE Main Mathematics Question with Solution

Let f(x)=x(1+xn)1n,xR{1},nN,n>2f(x)=\frac{x}{\left(1+x^n\right)^{\frac{1}{n}}}, x \in R-\{-1\}, n \in N, n>2. If fn(x)=(f^n(x)=( fofof .\ldots .. upto nn times )(x))(x), then Limn01xn2(fn(x))dx\operatorname{Lim}_{n \rightarrow \infty} \int_0^1 x^{n-2}\left(f^n(x)\right) d x is equal to \text{\quad\quad\quad}
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Source and academic review
Question type
Numerical
Exam relevance
JEE Main · Mathematics
Concepts assessed
Mathematics
Academic status
Reviewed by official_key
Source
pyq
Editorial review
7 September 2026

Students also ask

Could we have avoided computing the integral altogether using the Squeeze Theorem?

Yes! Since 1+nxn11+nx^n \ge 1, we have 0fn(x)x0 \le f^n(x) \le x, so 001xn1dx=1/n00 \le \int_0^1 x^{n-1} dx = 1/n \to 0, immediately giving the limit as 0.