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JEE MainMathematics
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Indefinite Integration via Substitution with Exponential Functions

Let I(x)=integral of ((x+1))/(x(1+xe^x)^2) dx, x>0, If lim of _(x → ∞) I(x)=0, then I(1) is equal to
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JEE Main · Mathematics
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Answer verified against the official NTA key
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Previous-year question
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8 September 2026

Students also ask

Why multiply by ex in both numerator and denominator?

Because the derivative of the inside term xex is (x+1)ex. We already have (x+1) in the numerator, so introducing ex completes the differential d(xex).