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JEE MainMathematics
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Indefinite Integration Using Integration by Parts and Chain Rule

If I(x)=integral of e^(sin^2 x)(cos xsin 2x-sin x)dx and I(0)=1, then I(π/3) is equal to
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JEE Main · Mathematics
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Answer verified against the official NTA key
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Previous-year question
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7 September 2026

Students also ask

Why choose esin2xsin2x as the second function rather than expanding sin2x=2sinxcosx?

Because the derivative of sin2x is 2sinxcosx=sin2x, making esin2xsin2xdx=esin2x directly integrable.